Q.4.28

Question

An urn has n white and m black balls. Balls are randomly withdrawn, without replacement, until a total of k, k  n white balls have been withdrawn. The random variable X equal to the total number of balls that are withdrawn is said to be a negative hypergeometric random variable.

(a) Explain how such a random variable differs from a negative binomial random variable. 

(b) Find P{X=r}.

Hint for (b): In order for X = r to happen, what must be the results of the first  r  1 withdrawals? 

Step-by-Step Solution

Verified
Answer

(a)Trials are not independent.

 (b) P(X=r)=nk-1mr-kn+mr-1·n-k+1n+m-r+1

1Step 1: Given Information (Part a)

Given:

An urn contains n white balls and m black balls

Balls are removed without replacement until k white balls are drawn (kn)

X= Total number of balls withdrawn

X has a negative hypergeometric allocation.

2Step 2: Calculation (Part a)

(a)Formula Negative binomial distribution:

P(X=x)=x-1r-1pr(1-p)x-r

The negative binomial allocation is the probability distribution of a variable that counts the number of losses required to get the r the success (with independent trials and constant probability of success).

Since the balls are drawn without a substitute, the trials are not independent and thus it is not suitable to utilize the negative binomial distribution (as this distribution needs independent trials).

3Step 3:Final answer (Part a)

Trials are not independent (while independent trials is a property of the negative binomial random variable)

4Step 4: Given Information (Part b)

Given:

An urn contains n white balls and m black balls

Balls are removed without replacement until k white balls are drawn (kn)

X= Total number of balls withdrawn

X has a negative hypergeometric allocation.

5Step 5: Calculation (Part b)

Formula hypergeometric probability:

P(Y=x)=rxN-rn-xNn

When X=r, then we select the kth white ball on the rth draw, while we then also drew k-1 white balls and (r-1)-(k-1)=r-k black balls on the first r-1 draws.

By the definition of hypergeometric, there are P(Y=k-1)=nk-1mrkn+mr-1 ways to then make the first r-1 draws.

Since there are then n-k+1 white balls and m-(r-k) black balls remaining after the first r-1 draws, the probability of drawing a white ball on the rth draw is n-k+1n-k+1+m-(r-k)=n-k+1n+m-r+1.

P(X=r)=P(Y=k-1) P( White on rthdraw )

=nk-1mr-kn+mr-1·n-k+1n+m-r+1

6Step 6: Final answer (Part b)

We have found to be P(X=r)=nk-1mr-kn+mr-1·n-k+1n+m-r+1.