Q.3.39

Question

In Example 3a, what is the probability that someone has an accident in the second year given that he or she had no accidents in the first year?

Step-by-Step Solution

Verified
Answer

The probability that someone has an accident in the second year given that he or she had no accidents in the first year is 0.24864.

1Step 1: Given information

In Example 3asomeone has an accident in the second year given that he or she had no accidents in the first year.

2Step 2: Solution

Let A be the possibility that the policyholder is accident prone and A1 be the event that the policyholder will have an accident within a year of purchasing the policy.

The tree diagram is given below,



Thus,

PAA1c=PAA1cPA1c

=0.3×0.60.3×0.6+0.7×0.8

=0.180.74

=0.2432

Then,

PAcA1c=PAcA1cPA1c

=0.7×0.80.3×0.6+0.7×0.8

=0.560.74

=0.7568

3Step 3: solution

Let A2 be the event that the policy holder will have an accident in the second year.

The tree diagram will be,




The probability that a person has a casualty in the second year given that he or she kept no accident in the first year is,

PA2A1c=PA2AA1c+PA2AcA1c

=0.4×PAA1c+0.2×PAcA1c

=0.4×0.2432+0.2×0.7568

=0.24864

4Step 4: Final answer

The probability that someone has an accident in the second year given that he or she had no accidents in the first year is 0.24864.