Q.3.29

Question

In Laplace’s rule of succession (Example 5e), show that if the first n flips all result in heads, then the conditional probability that the next m flips also result in all heads is (n + 1)/(n + m + 1) .

Step-by-Step Solution

Verified
Answer

The product of probabilities is PHn+mHn+m-1Hn+1Fnn+1n+m+1.

1Step 1: Given Information

Ci - the coin with probability ik of flipping heads is chosen, i=0,1,,k.

Fn - the first n flips of a chosen coin are heads.

Hn+1-n+1-st flip is heads.

2Step 2: Explanation

Conditioning on which coin is chosen, we get the formula:


Fn=i=0kikn+1j=0kjkn


Also for large k :


1ki=0kikn01xndx=1n+1


Thus, for large k :

PHn+1Fnn+1n+2

Calculation of PHn+mHn+m-1Hn+1Fn

3Step 3: Explanation

Use the formula of conditional probability (first row) and multiplication rule (second row):

PHn+mHn+m-1Hn+1Fn

=PHn+mHn+m-1Hn+1FnPFn

=PHn+mHn+m-1Hn+1Fn·PHn+m-1Hn+m-2Hn+1Fn··PFnPFn

=PHn+mHn+m-1Hn+1Fn··PHn+1Fn

=PHn+mFn+m-1·PHn+m-1Fn+m-2··PHn+1Fn

4Step 4: Explanation

For as little approximation as possible, substitute formula (1) into this equation directly:

PHn+mHn+m-1Hn+1Fn

=i=0kikn+mj=0kjkn+m-1·i=0kikn+m-1j=0kjkn+m-2··i=0kikn+1j=0kjkn

=i=0kikn+mj=0kjkn

All the fractions are reduced because by changing the name of the iterator the sums become identical.

Now use approximations:

1ki=0kikn01xndx=1n+1

1ki=0kikn+m01xn+mdx=1n+m+1

Therefore:

PHn+mHn+m-1Hn+1Fnn+1n+m+1
5Step 5: Final Answer

The product of probability is PHn+mHn+m-1Hn+1Fnn+1n+m+1.