Q14E

Question

Find the Laplace transform of .f(t)=0tevsin(tv)dv

Step-by-Step Solution

Verified
Answer

The Laplace transformation of 0tevsin(tv)dvis 1(s2+1)(s1). 

1Step 1: Given that,

f(t)=0tevsin(tv)dv

2Step 2: Applying the Convolution Theorem

gh=0tg(tv)h(v)dvg(t)=sintg(s)=1s2+1h(t)=etg(s)=1s1

3Step 3: Simplify

L[gh]=g(s)h(s)=1s2+11s1=1(s2+1)(s1)

Hence,

 f(s)=1(s2+1)(s1)