Q. 63
Question
Q.
Let \(f(x) = \begin{cases} & 0,\text { if } x=0 \\ & e^{\frac{-1}{x^{2}}},\text{ if } x\neq 0 \end{cases}\)
(a) Use the definition of the derivative at a point to show that f has derivatives of all orders at \(x = 0\).
(b) Show that \(f^{(k)}(0)=0\) for every nonnegative integer \(k\).
(c) What is the Maclaurin series for \(f\) ?
(d) Explain why the Maclaurin series does not converge to \(f(x)\).
Step-by-Step Solution
VerifiedThe answers are
(c) Maclaurin series is the constant function 0.
(d) The Maclaurin series does not converge to the actual function (other than at \(x=0\)).
\(f(x) = \begin{cases} & 0,\text { if } x=0 \\ & e^{\frac{-1}{x^{2}}},\text{ if } x\neq 0 \end{cases}\)
\(f^{'}(a)=\displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}\)
\(f^{'}(0)=\displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f(0+h)-f(0)}{h}\)
\(f^{'}(0)=\displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f(h)-f(0)}{h}\)
\(f^{'}(0)=\displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{e^{\frac{-1}{h^{2}}} -0}{h}\)
It is \(\frac{0}{0}\) form, Using L'Hopital's rule:
\(f^{'}(0)=\displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0} \frac {\frac{2e^{\frac{-1}{h^{2}}}}{3}h}{h}\)
\(f^{'}(0)=\displaystyle \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{2 e^{\frac{-1}{h^{2}}}}{3}\)
\(f^{'}(0) =\frac{2 e^{-\propto }}{3}\)
\(f^{'}(0)=0\)
By induction we get that,\(f^{(k)}(0)=0\) for every non-negative integer \(k\)
Thus \(f\) has derivatives of all orders at \(x = 0\).
Part (b): From Part (a) we get,
\(f^{(k)}(0)=0\) for every non-negative integer \(k\)
In order to have a Maclaurin series, a function \(f\) must have a derivative of every order at
\(x = 0\).
We know Maclaurin series is of the form \(\sum_{k=0}^{\propto } \frac{f^{(k)}(0)}{k!}x^{k}\)
Here we have, \(f^{(k)}(0) =0\)
Thus, our Maclaurin series is the constant function \(0\).
The Maclaurin series is the constant function 0. The series is made of infinitely many zeroes which converges to zero for every value of \(x\), but the function \(f(x)=0\) if and only if \(x=0\). That is why it is not convergent to \(f(x)\)