Q. 63

Question

(a) Show that the series k=1k!kk converges.

(b) Explain why part (a) proves thatlimkk!kk=0.

(c) Explain why part (b) proves that the function kk dominates factorial growth.

Step-by-Step Solution

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Answer

Part a. The given series converges.

Part b. It proved that limkk!kk=0.

Part c. The function kk dominates factorial growth because as k the denominator kk will increase more than k!. Thus, by the definition of dominance, the function kk dominates factorial growth.

1Part (a) Step 1. Given Information.

The given series is k=1k!kk.

2Part (a) Step 2. Showing that the given series converges.

To show that the given series converges we will use the ratio test.

Let the general term is ak=k!kk.

So, ak+1=k+1!k+1k+1.

Now,

ρ=limkak+1akρ=limkk+1!k+1k+1k!kkρ=limkk+1!kkk+1k+1k!ρ=limkk+1k!kk(k+1)k(k+1)k!ρ=limkkkk+1kρ=1e

Since 1e<1, the given series converges.

3Part (b) Step 1. Explaining.

To prove that limkk!kk=0 we will use part (a), as we have shown in part (a) that k=1k!kk converges, so if the series converges then limkk!kk=0.

Hence proved.

4Part (c) Step 1. Explaining.

To prove that part (b) proves that the function kk dominates factorial growth.

Take the series k=1k!kk.

Now, as k the denominator kk will increase more than k!.

Thus, by the definition of dominance, the function kk dominates factorial growth.