Q. 5

Question

Suppose f is a polynomial of degree n and let k be some integer with 0kn. Prove that if f(x) is of the form f(x)=anxn+an-1xn-1+....+a1x+a0

Then ak=fk(0)k! where fk(x) is the k-th derivative of f(x) and k!=k·(k-1)·(k-2)....2·1

Step-by-Step Solution

Verified
Answer

We use Principal of mathematical induction to prove ak=fk(0)k!   where 0kn

1Step 1: Given information

We are given a polynomial function f(x)=anxn+an-1xn-1+....+akxk+.....+a1x+a0

We use mathematical induction to prove 

When n=0

f(x)=a0

Hence LHS= RHS

Now consider that statement is true for k where 0kn

Hence the polynomial become

And 

fk(x)=cknanxn-k+....+(k+1)!ak+1x+k!ak     (1)

At x=0

fk(x)=k!akak=fk(x)k!

Now we prove that the statement is true for k+1 

To prove it we differentiate equation 1 again

We get,

fk+1(x)=ck+1nanxn-k-1+.....+(k+1)!ak+1

At x=0

fk+1(0)=(k+1)!ak+1ak+1=fk+1(0)(k+1)!

Hence proved 

2Step 2: Identify the differentiation rules needed
Examine the function to determine which differentiation rules apply: power rule, product rule, quotient rule, chain rule, or special function derivatives.
3Step 3: Apply the differentiation rules
Differentiate each term of the function systematically, applying the chain rule for composite functions.
4Step 4: Simplify the derivative
Combine like terms, factor where appropriate, and write the derivative in its simplest form.
5Step 5: State the final answer
Write the final derivative clearly.
6Step 6: Conclude with the answer

We use Principal of mathematical induction to prove ak=fk(0)k!   where 0kn