Q. 4.32

Question

A jar contains n chips. Suppose that a boy successively draws a chip from the jar, each time replacing the one drawn before drawing another. The process continues until the boy draws a chip that he has previously drawn. Let X denote the number of draws, and compute its probability mass function.

Step-by-Step Solution

Verified
Answer

knk+1·i=0k-1(n-i)

1Step 1 Given information

We have that X,X2. Event X>k means that in first k draws we have taken all different chips. Hence

P(X>k)=n(n-1)(n-k+1)nk

Similarly we have that 

P(X>k+1)=n(n-1)(n-k)nk+1

2Step 2 Explanation

Hence. we have that 

P(X=k)=P(X>k)-P(X>k+1)

=n(n-1)(n-k+1)nk-n(n-1)(n-k)nk+1

=n(n-1)(n-k+1)nk1-n-kn

=kn·n(n-1)(n-k+1)nk

3Step 3 Final answer

The probability mass function is

P(X=k)=knk+1·i=0k-1(n-i)