Q. 2.14

Question

Prove Boole’s inequality:

Pi=1Aii=1PAi

Step-by-Step Solution

Verified
Answer

Proof by mathematical induction:

Assume that equality stands for somen, and it follows that inequality stands forn+1.

1Step 1 Given Information.

Prove that for all eventsA1 ,A2 ,...An.

Pk=1nAkk=1nPAk

2Step 2 Explanation.

Proof by mathematical induction:

Forn=1 the statement is true

PA1PA1

Hypothesis:Pk=1nAkk=1nPAk this is true for anyn event.

Then for any n+1events:

Pk=1n+1Ak=Pk=1nAkAn+1   associative law 


&=Pk=1nAk+PAn+1-Pk=1nAkAn+1k=1nPAk+PAn+1-Pk=1nAkAn+1k=1n+1PAk-Pk=1nAkAn+1k=1n+1PAk 

 

Pn+1Akk=1n+1PAk

This proves the statement, by the principle of mathematical induction.