Problem 99
Question
If \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-a x} d x=\frac{1}{a}\), then \(\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n} e^{-a x} d x\) is (A) \(\frac{(-1)^{n} n !}{a^{n+1}}\) (B) \(\frac{(-1)^{n}(n-1) !}{a^{n}}\) (C) \(\frac{n !}{a^{n+1}}\) (D) None of these
Step-by-Step Solution
Verified Answer
The answer is (C) \(\frac{n !}{a^{n+1}}\).
1Step 1: Understand the Problem
We are given that \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-a x} \, dx=\frac{1}{a}\). We need to evaluate \(\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n} e^{-a x} \, dx\). This is a type of improper integral often encountered in calculus, specifically a Laplace transform.
2Step 2: Identify Use of Formula
We recognize that \(\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n} e^{-a x} \, dx\) can be solved using the Gamma function property: \(\Gamma(n+1) = \int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n} e^{-x} \, dx = n!\). For \(e^{-a x}\), we substitute \(ax = y\), implying \(x = \frac{y}{a}, \, dx = \frac{dy}{a}\).
3Step 3: Substitute Variables
Change variables using \(y = ax\). Then \(x = \frac{y}{a}\) and \(dx = \frac{dy}{a}\). This implies: \[\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n} e^{-a x} \, dx = \int_{0}^{\infty} \left(\frac{y}{a}\right)^{n} e^{-y} \left(\frac{dy}{a}\right)\].
4Step 4: Simplify Expression
Factor out everything that doesn't depend on \(y\): \[= \frac{1}{a^{n+1}} \int_{0}^{\infty} y^{n} e^{-y} \, dy\]. Now we see \(\int_{0}^{\infty} y^{n} e^{-y} \, dy = n!\).
5Step 5: Apply Gamma Function Result
Since \(\int_{0}^{\infty} y^{n} e^{-y} \, dy = n!\), substitute it back into the integral: \[= \frac{1}{a^{n+1}} n!\].
6Step 6: Choose the Correct Option
The expression \(\frac{n!}{a^{n+1}}\) matches option (C), confirming the solution to the given problem.
Key Concepts
Improper integralLaplace transformVariable substitution
Improper integral
An improper integral is a type of integral where the limits of integration are either infinite or the integrand becomes infinite at some point within the limits. This type of integral is essential in calculus to compute areas under curves that approach infinity. Frequently, improper integrals extend from a specified point to infinity, such as \( \int_{0}^{\infty} \).
To handle improper integrals, we often need to consider limits. Imagine you need to find the integral from 0 to infinity of \( e^{-ax} \). This requires examining the limit as the upper boundary tends to infinity:
- Set the integral with a variable such as \( t \) taking the place of infinity.
- Calculate the integral from 0 to \( t \) and let \( t \to \infty \).
In our exercise, we evaluate \( \int_{0}^{\infty} x^n e^{-ax} \, dx \). It's improper because the upper limit is infinite. The known result \( \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-ax} \, dx = \frac{1}{a} \) serves as a building block for determining more complex integrals by eliminating infinite boundaries.
To handle improper integrals, we often need to consider limits. Imagine you need to find the integral from 0 to infinity of \( e^{-ax} \). This requires examining the limit as the upper boundary tends to infinity:
- Set the integral with a variable such as \( t \) taking the place of infinity.
- Calculate the integral from 0 to \( t \) and let \( t \to \infty \).
In our exercise, we evaluate \( \int_{0}^{\infty} x^n e^{-ax} \, dx \). It's improper because the upper limit is infinite. The known result \( \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-ax} \, dx = \frac{1}{a} \) serves as a building block for determining more complex integrals by eliminating infinite boundaries.
Laplace transform
The Laplace transform is a powerful integral transform used to convert functions of time into functions of a complex variable. This method is used extensively for solving differential equations and analyzing systems.
The Laplace transform of a function \( f(t) \) is given by:\[L\{f(t)\} = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-st} f(t) \, dt\]Where \( s \) is a complex number parameter.
In the context of the given exercise, we recognize a resemblance to the Laplace transform. The integral \( \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-ax} \, dx \) closely relates to the Laplace transform with \( s = a \). This technique transforms the exponential decay function, helping simplify our problem into manageable forms. It's notable that the Laplace transform greatly facilitates handling improper integrals by providing a tool that reshapes continuous time-domain functions into a format suitable for algebraic manipulations.
The Laplace transform of a function \( f(t) \) is given by:\[L\{f(t)\} = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-st} f(t) \, dt\]Where \( s \) is a complex number parameter.
In the context of the given exercise, we recognize a resemblance to the Laplace transform. The integral \( \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-ax} \, dx \) closely relates to the Laplace transform with \( s = a \). This technique transforms the exponential decay function, helping simplify our problem into manageable forms. It's notable that the Laplace transform greatly facilitates handling improper integrals by providing a tool that reshapes continuous time-domain functions into a format suitable for algebraic manipulations.
Variable substitution
Variable substitution, also known as change of variables, simplifies complex integral calculations by transforming the integrand into a more straightforward form. This technique is crucial for solving integrals involving difficult functions or variables.
To perform a variable substitution:
To perform a variable substitution:
- Select a new variable (e.g., \( y = ax \)) to substitute into the integral.
- Express the old variables in terms of the new variable (here, \( x = \frac{y}{a} \) and \( dx = \frac{dy}{a} \)).
- Rewrite the integral using the new variable setup.
Other exercises in this chapter
Problem 97
If \(a_{n}=\int_{0}^{\pi / 4} \cot ^{n} x d x\), then \(a_{2}+a_{4}, a_{3}+a_{5}, a_{4}+a_{6}\) are in (A) GP (B) \(\mathrm{AP}\) (C) HP (D) None of these
View solution Problem 98
Let \(f(x)\) be a continuous function in \([-2,2]\) such that \(f(x)+f(y)=f(x+y)\), then \(\int_{-2}^{2} f(x) d x=\) (A) \(2 \int_{0}^{2} f(x) d x\) (B) 0 (C) \
View solution Problem 100
Let \(f(x)\) be a non-negative continuous function such that the area bounded by the curve \(y=f(x), x\)-axis and the ordinates \(x=\frac{\pi}{4}\) and \(x=\bet
View solution Problem 103
If \(I_{1}=\int_{0}^{a}[x] d x\) and \(I_{2}=\int_{0}^{a}\\{x\\} d x\), where \([x]\) and \(\\{x\\}\) denote, respectively, the integral and fractional parts of
View solution