Problem 82
Question
Evaluate the following integrals. $$\iint_{R} y d A ; R=\\{(x, y): 0 \leq y \leq \sec x, 0 \leq x \leq \pi / 3\\}$$
Step-by-Step Solution
Verified Answer
Question: Evaluate the double integral of the function \(y\) over the region R, where R is defined by the inequalities \(0\leq y\leq \sec x\) and \(0\leq x\leq \pi/3\).
Answer: The value of the double integral is \(\frac{\pi+1}{6}\).
1Step 1: Set up the integral
First, we set up the integral. We express the given integral as a double integral with the given limits:
$$\iint_R y dA = \int_0^{\pi/3}\int_0^{\sec x} y\, dy\, dx$$
This means that we first integrate with respect to \(y\) over the region \([0, \sec x]\), and then integrate with respect to \(x\) over the region \([0, \pi/3]\).
2Step 2: Integrate with respect to y
We will first integrate with respect to \(y\) using the power rule. The power rule states that for a function of the form \(y^n\), the integral is \((y^{n+1})/(n+1)\).
\begin{align*}
\int_0^{\sec x} y\, dy &= \left[\frac{y^2}{2}\right]_0^{\sec x}\\
&= \frac{(\sec x)^2}{2}-\frac{(0)^2}{2}\\
&= \frac{(\sec x)^2}{2}
\end{align*}
3Step 3: Integrate with respect to x
Next, we will integrate the result with respect to \(x\) over the region \([0, \pi/3]\).
$$\int_0^{\pi/3} \frac{(\sec x)^2}{2}\, dx$$
To evaluate this integral, we can use a trigonometric identity: \((\sec x)^2 = 1 + (\tan x)^2\). This means that our integral becomes
$$\int_0^{\pi/3}\frac{1 + (\tan x)^2}{2}\, dx$$
Now we can split this integral into two parts:
\begin{align*}
\int_0^{\pi/3}\frac{1 + (\tan x)^2}{2}\, dx &= \frac{1}{2}\int_0^{\pi/3}(1+(\tan x)^2) dx\\
&= \frac{1}{2}\int_0^{\pi/3} 1\, dx + \frac{1}{2}\int_0^{\pi/3} (\tan x)^2\, dx
\end{align*}
4Step 4: Evaluate the integrals
Now we can evaluate the remaining integrals:
\begin{align*}
\frac{1}{2}\int_0^{\pi/3} 1\, dx &= \frac{1}{2} \left[x\right]_0^{\pi/3}\\
&= \frac{1}{2} \pi/3 =\frac{\pi}{6}
\end{align*}
For the second part, we can use substitution. Let \(u = \tan x\), which means \(du = (\sec x)^2 dx\). Our integral becomes:
$$\frac{1}{2}\int_0^{\pi/3} (\tan x)^2\, dx = \frac{1}{2}\int_0^1 u^2\, du$$
Now, we can use the power rule again to evaluate this integral:
\begin{align*}
\frac{1}{2}\int_0^1 u^2\, du &= \frac{1}{2}\left[\frac{u^3}{3}\right]_0^1\\
&= \frac{1}{6}
\end{align*}
5Step 5: Combine the results
Now we can combine the results:
\begin{align*}
\iint_R y dA &= \frac{\pi}{6} + \frac{1}{6}\\ &= \frac{\pi+1}{6}
\end{align*}
The value of the double integral is \(\frac{\pi+1}{6}\).
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