Problem 68
Question
Involve the factorial numbers \(n !\), which were introduced in Section \(1.4 .\) They can be defined by \(0 !=1\) and, for a positive integer \(n, n !=n(n-1) \ldots 3 \ldots 2 \cdot 1\). Let \(n\) be a positive integer. If \(k\) is a positive integer no greater than \(n\), then the expression $$\left(\begin{array}{l}n \\\k\end{array}\right)=\frac{n !}{k !(n-k) !}=\frac{n(n-1)(n-2) \cdots(n-k+1)}{k \cdot(k-1) \cdots \cdot 3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1}$$ is called a binomial coefficient. For example, if \(n=7,\) and \(k=3,\) then \(n-k+1=5,\) and $$\left(\begin{array}{l}7 \\\3\end{array}\right)=\frac{7 \cdot 6 \cdot 5}{3 \cdot 2 \cdot 1}=35$$ By definition \(\left(\begin{array}{l}n \\ 0\end{array}\right)=1 .\) Leibniz's Rule states that \((f \cdot g)^{(n)}(c)\) is the sum of the \(n+1\) expressions that are obtained by substituting \(k=0,1,2, \ldots, n\) in the formula \(\left(\begin{array}{c}n \\ k\end{array}\right) \cdot f^{(n-k)}(c) \cdot g^{(k)}(c) .\) Explicitly write out Leibniz's Rule for \(n=1,2,\) and \(3 .\) Observe that the \(n=1\) case is the Product Rule, the \(n=2\) case is equation (3.7.2). Verify Leibniz's Rule for \(n=2\) .
Step-by-Step Solution
VerifiedKey Concepts
Factorial Numbers
- 5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120
Binomial Coefficients
- \(\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}\)
- \(\binom{7}{3} = \frac{7!}{3!(7-3)!} = \frac{7 \times 6 \times 5}{3 \times 2 \times 1} = 35\)
Product Rule for Differentiation
- The derivative is \((f \cdot g)' = f'(x) \cdot g(x) + f(x) \cdot g'(x)\).
The product rule becomes especially useful when dealing with functions that are complex and cannot be simplified into simpler terms before taking the derivative. It ensures that each part of the product is accounted for in the derivative, maintaining accuracy in calculus.