Problem 65
Question
The following integrals can be evaluated only by reversing the order of integration. Sketch the region of integration, reverse the order of integration, and evaluate the integral. $$\int_{0}^{1 / 2} \int_{y^{2}}^{1 / 4} y \cos \left(16 \pi x^{2}\right) d x d y$$
Step-by-Step Solution
Verified Answer
After reversing the order of integration and evaluating the given double integral, we found that its value is 0.
1Step 1: Sketch the Region of Integration
The region of integration is defined by the given limits:
$$0 \le y \le \frac{1}{2}$$
$$y^{2} \le x \le \frac{1}{4}$$
Plotting these inequalities on a coordinate system (xy-plane), we get a region bounded by the x-axis (y=0), the line y=1/2, curve x=y^2 and a vertical line x=1/4.
2Step 2: Reverse the Order of Integration
To reverse the order of integration, we need to change the limits of integration. Currently, the outside integral is with respect to y and the inside integral is with respect to x. We will switch the order so that the outside integral is with respect to x and the inside integral with respect to y.
For x:
From the sketch, we can see that the lower limit is x=0 and the upper limit is x=1/4.
For y:
The lower limit is given by the curve x=y^2, which means y=sqrt(x).
Since the upper limit is a horizontal line y=1/2, the limits for y are sqrt(x) to 1/2.
The reversed integral becomes:
$$\int_{0}^{1/4} \int_{\sqrt{x}}^{1/2} y \cos(16\pi x^2) dy dx$$
3Step 3: Evaluate the Resulting Integral
Now, we will evaluate the integral:
$$\int_{0}^{1/4} \int_{\sqrt{x}}^{1/2} y \cos(16\pi x^2) dy dx$$
First, integrate with respect to y:
$$\int_{0}^{1/4} \left[\frac{y^2}{2} \cos(16\pi x^2)\right]_{\sqrt{x}}^{1/2} dx$$
Now, we will plug in the limits for y:
$$\int_{0}^{1/4} \left[\frac{1}{4}\cos(16\pi x^2) - \frac{x}{2}\cos(16\pi x^2)\right] dx$$
Now, integrate with respect to x:
$$\left[\frac{1}{32\pi}\sin(16\pi x^2) - \frac{x^2}{4}\frac{1}{32\pi}\sin(16\pi x^2)\right]_0^{1/4}$$
Finally, plug in the limits for x and evaluate:
$$\left[\frac{1}{32\pi}\sin(4\pi) - \frac{1}{16}\frac{1}{32\pi}\sin(4\pi)\right] - \left[\frac{1}{32\pi}\sin(0) - \frac{0}{4}\frac{1}{32\pi}\sin(0)\right]$$
Since both sin(4π) and sin(0) are equal to 0, the value of the integral is:
$$0$$
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