Question: Explain why the line of perfect equality has the name and provide examples of why a Lorenz curve satisfies the given conditions.
Answer: The line of perfect equality (\(y = x\)) is so named because it represents a completely equal distribution of wealth, i.e., every individual in the society has the same amount of wealth. If \(x\) is the fraction of the population, then \(y = x\) means that the same fraction of the population owns the same fraction of the total wealth. For example, if 20% of the population (\(x=0.2\)) owns 20% of the total wealth (\(y=0.2\)), we have a perfect equal distribution.
A Lorenz curve satisfies the conditions \(L(0)=0\), \(L(1)=1\), and \(L^{\prime}(x)\geq 0\) on \([0,1]\) due to the following reasons:
1. \(L(0) = 0\): When the fraction of the population is 0, i.e., no people, there's no wealth owned by that fraction.
2. \(L(1) = 1\): When the entire population is considered (100% of the population, \(x = 1\)), they own 100% of the total wealth (\(y = 1\)).
3. \(L^{\prime}(x) \geq 0\): The derivative being greater than or equal to 0 means that the Lorenz curve is always increasing. This property reflects the fact that as we consider larger portions of the society, their total wealth will not decrease.
1Step 1: a. Explain why the line of perfect equality has the name
The line \(y = x\) is called the line of perfect equality because it represents a completely equal distribution of wealth, i.e., every individual in the society has the same amount of wealth. If \(x\) is the fraction of the population, then \(y = x\) means that the same fraction of the population owns the same fraction of the total wealth. For example, if 20% of the population (\(x=0.2\)) owns 20% of the total wealth (\(y=0.2\)), we have a perfect equal distribution.
2Step 2: b. Explain why a Lorenz curve satisfies the conditions
The conditions \(L(0)=0\), \(L(1)=1\), and \(L^{\prime}(x)\geq 0\) on \([0,1]\) hold due to the following reasons:
1. \(L(0) = 0\): When the fraction of the population is 0, i.e., no people, there's no wealth owned by that fraction.
2. \(L(1) = 1\): When the entire population is considered (100% of the population, \(x = 1\)), they own 100% of the total wealth (\(y = 1\)).
3. \(L^{\prime}(x) \geq 0\): The derivative being greater than or equal to 0 means that the Lorenz curve is always increasing. This property reflects the fact that as we consider larger portions of the society, their total wealth will not decrease.
3Step 3: c. Graph the Lorenz curves
To graph the Lorenz curves for \(L(x) = x^p\) with \(p = 1.1,1.5,2,3,4\), simply plot the function for each value of \(p\) on the domain \([0,1]\). You should notice that as the value of \(p\) increases, the curve gets farther away from the line of perfect equality (\(y=x\)). Therefore, of the given values of \(p\), the most equitable distribution of wealth corresponds to \(p=1.1\). The least equitable distribution of wealth corresponds to \(p=4\).
4Step 4: d. Gini index formula derivation
The Gini index is given by the formula \(G=\frac{A}{A+B}\), where \(A\) and \(B\) are the areas between the Lorenz curve and the diagonal (line of perfect equality) and between the Lorenz curve and the x-axis, respectively. If we combine these areas, we get the total area under the diagonal, which is a right triangle of base 1 and height 1. Thus, we can write \(A+B=\frac{1}{2}\).
Then, to express the Gini index in terms of the integral of the Lorenz curve, we rewrite our equation as \(A = \frac{1}{2} - B\). We can find the area \(B\) by integrating the Lorenz curve over the interval \([0,1]\). Therefore, \(B = \int_0^1 L(x) dx\).
Substituting this expression into the equation for \(A\), we get \(A = \frac{1}{2} - \int_0^1 L(x) dx\).
Now, substituting the expression for \(A\) into the Gini index formula, we find that \(G = 1 - 2 \int_0^1 L(x) dx\).
5Step 5: e. Compute the Gini index for different values of \(p\)
We use the derived formula for the Gini index: \(G = 1 - 2\int_0^1 L(x) dx = 1 - 2\int_0^1 x^p dx\). To compute the Gini index for each value of \(p\), integrate the Lorenz curve for \(p=1.1, 1.5, 2, 3, 4\) on the interval \([0,1]\) and then compute \(G\).
1. For \(p=1.1\): \(G = 1 - 2\int_0^1 x^{1.1} dx = 1 - 2\left[ \frac{x^{2.1}}{2.1} \right]_0^1 = 1 - \frac{2}{2.1} = \frac{1}{10}\)
2. For \(p=1.5\): \(G = 1 - 2\int_0^1 x^{1.5} dx = 1 - 2\left[ \frac{x^{2.5}}{2.5} \right]_0^1 = 1 - \frac{2}{2.5} = \frac{1}{5}\)
3. For \(p=2\): \(G = 1 - 2\int_0^1 x^{2} dx = 1 - 2\left[\frac{x^3}{3}\right]_0^1 = 1 - \frac{2}{3}\)
4. For \(p=3\): \(G = 1 - 2\int_0^1 x^{3} dx = 1 - 2\left[\frac{x^4}{4}\right]_0^1 = 1 - \frac{1}{2}\)
5. For \(p=4\): \(G = 1 - 2\int_0^1 x^{4} dx = 1 - 2\left[\frac{x^5}{5}\right]_0^1 = 1 - \frac{2}{5}\)
6Step 6: f. Smallest interval of Gini index for \(L(x)=x^p\) with \(p\geq 1\)
We determine the smallest interval [a, b] in which the Gini index lies for \(L(x) = x^p\) with \(p\geq 1\) by looking at the limits of the Gini index as \(p\) approaches 1 and infinity.
Find the limit as p approaches 1: $$\lim_{p\to1} G(p) = \lim_{p\to1} \left( 1 - 2\int_0^1 x^p dx \right) = 1 - 2\int_0^1 x^1 dx = 1 - 1 = 0$$
Find the limit as p approaches infinity: $$\lim_{p\to\infty} G(p) = \lim_{p\to\infty} \left( 1 - 2\int_0^1 x^p dx \right) = 1$$
Thus, the smallest interval in which the Gini index lies for \(L(x) = x^p\) with \(p\geq 1\) is \([0, 1]\). The least equitable distribution of wealth corresponds to \(G=1\), while the most equitable corresponds to \(G=0\).
7Step 7: g. Conditions for \(L(x)= \frac{5x^2}{6}+\frac{x}{6}\) and Gini index
To satisfy the conditions \(L(0)=0\), \(L(1)=1\), and \(L'(x)\geq 0\) on \([0, 1]\), we verify these properties for the given Lorenz curve, \(L(x)=\frac{5x^2}{6}+\frac{x}{6}\):
1. \(L(0)=\frac{5(0)^2}{6}+\frac{0}{6}=0\)
2. \(L(1)=\frac{5(1)^2}{6}+\frac{1}{6}=1\)
3. \(L'(x)=\frac{10x}{6}+\frac{1}{6}= \frac{10x+1}{6}\), which is non-negative on the interval \([0, 1]\).
All three conditions are satisfied. To find the Gini index for this function, use the Gini index formula and calculate the integral:
$$G = 1 - 2\int_0^1 \left(\frac{5x^2}{6}+\frac{x}{6}\right) dx
= 1 - 2\left[\frac{5x^3}{18}+\frac{x^2}{12}\right]_0^1
= 1 - \frac{7}{9}
= \frac{2}{9}$$
Thus, the Gini index for this Lorenz curve is \(\frac{2}{9}\).