Problem 32
Question
A random variable \(X\) has a Weibull distribution if it has probability density function $$ f(x)= \begin{cases}\frac{\beta}{\theta}\left(\frac{x}{\theta}\right)^{\beta-1} e^{-(x / \theta)^{\beta}} & \text { if } x>0 \\ 0 & \text { if } x \leq 0\end{cases} $$ (a) Show that \(\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) d x=1\). (Assume \(\beta>1\).) (b) If \(\theta=3\) and \(\beta=2\), find the mean \(\mu\) and the variance \(\sigma^{2}\). (c) If the lifetime of a computer monitor is a random variable \(X\) that has a Weibull distribution with \(\theta=3\) and \(\beta=2\) (where age is measured in years) find the probability that a monitor fails before two years.
Step-by-Step Solution
Verified Answer
(a) Verified. (b) Mean: 2.6586, Variance: 1.9426. (c) Probability: 35.88%.
1Step 1: Verify that Total Probability is 1
We need to show that the total probability for the variable is 1. This is expressed by the integral \( \int_0^{\infty} f(x) \, dx = 1 \). For the Weibull distribution, this becomes \[ \int_0^{\infty} \frac{\beta}{\theta}\left(\frac{x}{\theta}\right)^{\beta-1} e^{-(x / \theta)^{\beta}} \, dx = 1 \].To solve, perform the substitution \( u = \left(\frac{x}{\theta}\right)^{\beta} \) which simplifies this to a gamma function: \( \int_0^{\infty} u^{\frac{1}{\beta}-1} e^{-u} \, du = \Gamma\left(\frac{1}{\beta}\right) \). Known properties of the gamma function tell us \( \Gamma(x) = 1 \) for integer values and \( \beta > 1 \). Hence, the initial integral equals 1.Therefore, the Weibull distribution is valid as its PDF integrates to 1 over the real numbers.
2Step 2: Calculate the Mean for the Weibull Distribution
To find the mean \( \mu \), we use the formula for the expectation of the Weibull distribution: \( \mu = \theta \Gamma\left(1 + \frac{1}{\beta}\right) \).Given \( \theta = 3 \) and \( \beta = 2 \), the mean is \( \mu = 3 \Gamma\left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right) \). Using \( \Gamma\left(1.5\right) = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} \approx 0.8862 \), we get \( \mu \approx 3 \times 0.8862 = 2.6586 \).
3Step 3: Calculate the Variance for the Weibull Distribution
The variance \( \sigma^2 \) is found by \( \sigma^2 = \theta^2 \left(\Gamma\left(1 + \frac{2}{\beta}\right) - \left(\Gamma\left(1 + \frac{1}{\beta}\right)\right)^2\right) \).Given \( \theta = 3 \), \( \beta = 2 \), and using Gamma function values: \( \Gamma\left(2\right) = 1 \) and \( \Gamma\left(1.5\right) = 0.8862 \), we calculate the variance: \[ \sigma^2 = 3^2 \left(1 - 0.8862^2\right) \approx 9 \times 0.21584 = 1.9426 \].
4Step 4: Find the Probability of Failure Before 2 Years
The probability that a monitor fails before 2 years is given by the cumulative distribution function (CDF) of the Weibull distribution: \( P(X < 2) = 1 - e^{-(\frac{x}{\theta})^{\beta}} \) evaluated at \( x = 2 \).Using \( \theta = 3 \) and \( \beta = 2 \), this becomes: \[ P(X < 2) = 1 - e^{-(\frac{2}{3})^2} = 1 - e^{-\frac{4}{9}} \].Calculating, we find \( P(X < 2) = 1 - e^{-0.4444} \approx 1 - 0.6412 \approx 0.3588 \). Therefore, the probability is approximately 35.88%.
Key Concepts
Probability Density FunctionExpected ValueVarianceCumulative Distribution Function
Probability Density Function
The probability density function (PDF) plays a critical role in understanding the probability distribution of a random variable. In the context of the Weibull Distribution, the PDF is defined as follows for a random variable \( X \):
This means the likelihood of the variable taking on a particular value or falling within a specific range.
To ensure it is a valid probability distribution, the total area under the PDF curve over the entire space must equal 1. Mathematically, this is expressed as \( \int_{0}^{\infty} f(x) \, dx = 1 \).
For the Weibull distribution, using an appropriate substitution reduces this integral to a gamma function, which confirms that our Weibull PDF is properly normalized when \( \beta > 1 \). That establishes it as a legitimate probability function.
- For \( x > 0 \), \( f(x) = \frac{\beta}{\theta}\left(\frac{x}{\theta}\right)^{\beta-1} e^{-(x / \theta)^{\beta}} \).
- For \( x \leq 0 \), \( f(x) = 0 \).
This means the likelihood of the variable taking on a particular value or falling within a specific range.
To ensure it is a valid probability distribution, the total area under the PDF curve over the entire space must equal 1. Mathematically, this is expressed as \( \int_{0}^{\infty} f(x) \, dx = 1 \).
For the Weibull distribution, using an appropriate substitution reduces this integral to a gamma function, which confirms that our Weibull PDF is properly normalized when \( \beta > 1 \). That establishes it as a legitimate probability function.
Expected Value
The expected value, or mean, provides a measure of the central tendency of a distribution. For the Weibull distribution, it is calculated using the formula:
\( \mu = \theta \Gamma\left(1 + \frac{1}{\beta}\right) \).
This accounts for the shape \( \beta \) and scale \( \theta \) parameters of the distribution.
Given \( \theta = 3 \) and \( \beta = 2 \) from our specific exercise:
\( \mu = \theta \Gamma\left(1 + \frac{1}{\beta}\right) \).
This accounts for the shape \( \beta \) and scale \( \theta \) parameters of the distribution.
Given \( \theta = 3 \) and \( \beta = 2 \) from our specific exercise:
- The expected value, \( \mu \), becomes \( 3 \Gamma\left(1 + \frac{1}{2}\right) \).
- Using the gamma function \( \Gamma(1.5) = \frac{\sqrt{\pi}}{2} \approx 0.8862 \),
- we find \( \mu \approx 3 \times 0.8862 = 2.6586 \).
Variance
Variance measures how much the values of the random variable differ from the mean. For the Weibull distribution, it is given by the formula:
\( \sigma^2 = \theta^2 \left(\Gamma\left(1 + \frac{2}{\beta}\right) - \left(\Gamma\left(1 + \frac{1}{\beta}\right)\right)^2\right) \).
Let's delve into an example with \( \theta = 3 \) and \( \beta = 2 \):
\( \sigma^2 = \theta^2 \left(\Gamma\left(1 + \frac{2}{\beta}\right) - \left(\Gamma\left(1 + \frac{1}{\beta}\right)\right)^2\right) \).
Let's delve into an example with \( \theta = 3 \) and \( \beta = 2 \):
- The variance formula becomes \( 3^2 \left(\Gamma(2) - \Gamma(1.5)^2\right) \).
- Using \( \Gamma(2) = 1 \) and \( \Gamma(1.5) \approx 0.8862 \),
- we calculate \( \sigma^2 = 9 \left(1 - 0.8862^2\right) \).
- This results in \( \sigma^2 \approx 9 \times 0.21584 = 1.9426 \).
Cumulative Distribution Function
The cumulative distribution function (CDF) tells us the probability that a random variable will take a value less than or equal to a specific number.
For the Weibull distribution, the CDF is given by:
\( F(x) = 1 - e^{-(x / \theta)^{\beta}} \).
It essentially accumulates the probability from negative infinity to a point \( x \).
Let's explore the scenario where the lifetime of a computer monitor is represented by a Weibull distribution with \( \theta = 3 \) and \( \beta = 2 \):
The CDF provides valuable insight into the likelihood of different outcomes over a range of values.
For the Weibull distribution, the CDF is given by:
\( F(x) = 1 - e^{-(x / \theta)^{\beta}} \).
It essentially accumulates the probability from negative infinity to a point \( x \).
Let's explore the scenario where the lifetime of a computer monitor is represented by a Weibull distribution with \( \theta = 3 \) and \( \beta = 2 \):
- We want to find the probability that the monitor fails before 2 years.
- We use \( F(2) = 1 - e^{-(2 / 3)^2} \).
- Calculation \, yields \( F(2) = 1 - e^{-0.4444} \approx 1 - 0.6412 \approx 0.3588 \).
The CDF provides valuable insight into the likelihood of different outcomes over a range of values.
Other exercises in this chapter
Problem 31
Evaluate each improper integral or show that it diverges. $$ \int_{2 c}^{4 c} \frac{d x}{\sqrt{x^{2}-4 c^{2}}} $$
View solution Problem 31
Be sure you have an indeterminate form before applying l'Hôpital's Rule. $$\lim _{x \rightarrow 0^{+}}\left(1+2 e^{x}\right)^{1 / x}$$
View solution Problem 32
Evaluate each improper integral or show that it diverges. $$ \int_{c}^{2 c} \frac{x d x}{\sqrt{x^{2}+x c-2 c^{2}}}, c>0 $$
View solution Problem 32
Be sure you have an indeterminate form before applying l'Hôpital's Rule. $$\lim _{x \rightarrow 1}\left(\frac{1}{x-1}-\frac{x}{\ln x}\right)$$
View solution