Problem 29

Question

Determine whether the improper integral diverges or converges. Evaluate the integral if it converges, and check your results with the results obtained by using the integration capabilities of a graphing utility. $$ \int_{0}^{1} \frac{1}{x^{2}} d x $$

Step-by-Step Solution

Verified
Answer
The improper integral \(\int_{0}^{1} \frac{1}{x^{2}} dx\) diverges because the limit as \(t\) approaches 0 from the right for \(-\frac{1}{t}\) is \(-\infty\).
1Step 1: Identify the Type of Integral
Firstly, identify what kind of integral is given. In this case, we've an improper integral because the function \(f(x) = \frac{1}{x^{2}}\) is undefined at \(x = 0\) which is an endpoint of the interval of integration. We can rewrite it to show where it is undefined: \(\int_{0}^{1} \frac{1}{x^{2}} dx = \lim_{t \to 0^{+}} \int_{t}^{1} \frac{1}{x^{2}} dx = \lim_{t \to 0^{+}}\int_{t}^{1} x^{-2} dx\).
2Step 2: Evaluate the Integral
Next, the antiderivative of \(x^{-2}\) needs to be found and then substituted. Antiderivative of \(x^{-2} = -x^{-1}\). Thus, we get: \[ \lim_{t \to 0^{+}} [-x^{-1}]\Big|_{t}^{1} = \lim_{t \to 0^{+}}[-1 - (-\frac{1}{t})]\] Now, evaluate this limit.
3Step 3: Evaluate the Limit
The expression within the limit now becomes \(1 - \frac{1}{t}\) as \(t\) approaches 0 from the right. As \(t\) gets smaller and smaller, \(\frac{1}{t}\) gets larger and larger, thus the expression becomes \(-\infty\). Thus, the limit does not exist.