Problem 170
Question
Assertion: \(I_{n}=\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n} e^{-x} d x(n\) is a positive integer) \(\begin{aligned} &=n ! \\ \text { Reason: } I_{n}=& n I_{n-1} \end{aligned}\)
Step-by-Step Solution
Verified Answer
The assertion is true: \( I_n = n! \).
1Step 1: Define the Integral
The integral in question is \( I_{n} = \int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n} e^{-x} \, dx \). This integral is used to find properties related to gamma functions and factorials.
2Step 2: Use Integration by Parts
Apply integration by parts to the integral \( I_n \). Let \( u = x^n \) and \( dv = e^{-x} \, dx \), then \( du = n x^{n-1} \, dx \) and \( v = -e^{-x} \). The formula for integration by parts is \( \int u \, dv = uv - \int v \, du \).
3Step 3: Calculate Using Integration by Parts
Substituting into the integration by parts formula, we have: \(\begin{align*}I_n = \left[ -x^n e^{-x} \right]_0^{\infty} + n \int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n-1} e^{-x} \, dx.\end{align*} \)The first term at infinity is zero because \( x^n e^{-x} \to 0 \). At zero, the term is also zero, so:\( I_n = n \int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n-1} e^{-x} \, dx = n I_{n-1} \).
4Step 4: Verify the Reason
The reason states \( I_n = n I_{n-1} \). We derived this using integration by parts, confirming that the reason is correct.
5Step 5: Establish the Base Case
For the factorials, consider \( I_0 = \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x} \, dx \). This results in \( I_0 = 1 \), which is consistent with the fact that \( 0! = 1 \).
6Step 6: Deduce the General Formula
We have \( I_n = n \cdot (n-1) \cdot I_{n-2} \) and continuing in this pattern yields \( I_n = n! \). Thus, the assertion \( I_n = n! \) holds true.
Key Concepts
Integration by PartsFactorialImproper Integral
Integration by Parts
The technique of integration by parts is a strong tool in calculus that is used to integrate products of functions more comfortably. It is derived from the product rule for differentiation. Integration by parts is particularly useful when dealing with integrals that involve a polynomial multiplied by an exponential, logarithmic, or trigonometric function.
The formula is given by:
The formula is given by:
- \(\int u \, dv = uv - \int v \, du\)
- Select \(u\) and \(dv\) from the original integral. Typically, \(u\) is chosen to be a function that becomes simpler when differentiated, like a polynomial.
- Compute \(du\) by differentiating \(u\), and find \(v\) by integrating \(dv\).
- Substitute into the formula to simplify the integral.
Factorial
Factorials are a basic yet crucial part of mathematics, notably used in permutations, combinations, and series expansion. A factorial of a non-negative integer \(n\), denoted by \(n!\), is defined as the product of all positive integers less than or equal to \(n\).
For instance:
Factorials also have a simple base case: \(0!\) is defined to be \(1\). This base case is foundational when modeling recurrence relationships within different mathematical contexts.
For instance:
- \(5! = 5 \times 4 \times 3 \times 2 \times 1 = 120\)
Factorials also have a simple base case: \(0!\) is defined to be \(1\). This base case is foundational when modeling recurrence relationships within different mathematical contexts.
Improper Integral
Improper integrals are used to extend the concept of integration to functions that are unbounded or over an infinite interval. These occur when the limits of integration are infinite or the function approaches infinity within the interval.
Let's consider:
Let's consider:
- \(\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x} \, dx\)
- Calculate the limit as \(b \rightarrow \infty\): \(\lim_{b \to \infty} [-e^{-x}]_0^b = 1\).
Other exercises in this chapter
Problem 166
If \([\cdot]\) denotes the greatest integer function, then Column-I Column-II I. \(\int_{0}^{\infty}\left[\frac{2}{e^{x}}\right] d x=\) (A) 2 II. \(\int_{0}^{1.
View solution Problem 168
\(\begin{array}{ll}\text { Column-I } & \text { Column-II }\end{array}\) I. \(\int_{-1}^{3}(|x-2|+[x]) d x=([x]\) stands for (A) 2 greatest integer to \(x\) ) l
View solution Problem 174
Assertion: If \(f(x)\) is a non-negative continuous function such that \(f(x)+f\left(x+\frac{1}{2}\right)=1\), then \(\int_{0}^{2} f(x) d x=1\) Reason: \(f(x)\)
View solution Problem 178
\(\int_{0}^{10 \pi}|\sin x| d x\) is \(\quad[2002]\) (A) 20 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 18
View solution