36E

Question

Theorem 6 in Section 7.3 on page 364 can be expressed in terms of the inverse Laplace transform as

L-1dnFdsnt=-tnft

Where f=L-1F.Use this equation in Problems 33-36 to compute

L-1F. Fs=arctan1s

Step-by-Step Solution

Verified
Answer

Fs=arctan1s

1Step 1: Simplify the function and find derivative

Find the derivative of F with respect to s:

dFds=ddsarctan1s=11+1s2-1s2=-1s2+1

2Step 2: Find the Laplace inverse

From the given condition, we have L-1F=1-tnL-1dnFdsn ,apply this to find the Laplace inverse as:

L-1F=1-t1L-1 dFdsL-1F=1-tL-1-1s2+1=--1tL-11s2+1L-1F=1tsint

Therefore,

L-1F=1tsint